Sunday, December 23, 2012

FDR Held As Margin ON LG Are Non Current or Current Asset


Definition of 'Current Assets'

1. A balance sheet account that represents the value of all assets that are reasonably expected to be converted into cash within one year in the normal course of business. Current assets include cash, accounts receivable, inventory, marketable securities, prepaid expenses and other liquid assets that can be readily converted to cash.   

2. In personal finance, current assets are all assets that a person can readily convert to cash to pay outstanding debts and cover liabilities without having to sell fixed assets. 

In the United Kingdom, current assets are also known as "current accounts."

Current Asset: A balance sheet item which equals the sum of cash and cash equivalents, accounts receivable, inventory, marketable securities, prepaid expenses, and other assets that could be converted to cash in less than one year. A company's creditors will often be interested in how much that company has in current assets, since these assets can be easily liquidated in case the company goes bankrupt. In addition, current assets are important to most companies as a source of funds for day-to-day operation


Investopedia explains 'Current Assets'

1. Current assets are important to businesses because they are the assets that are used to fund day-to-day operations and pay ongoing expenses. Depending on the nature of the business, current assets can range from barrels of crude oil, to baked goods, to foreign currency. 

2. In personal finance, current assets include cash on hand and in the bank, and marketable securities that are not tied up in long-term investments. In other words, current assets are anything of value that is highly liquid. 




FDR held as margin against Letter of Guarantee or Letter of Credit i.e.  LG or LC
 -------------
Are they treated as current asset for computing permissible bank finance?

If yes why?

What is logic and what are rules behind such rationale?
If no?

Why banks are still treating FDR held as margin against LC or LG as current asset knowing very well that these FDR, though in nature encashable anytime as per bank’s whims and fancies, these FDRs cannot be utilized as working fund for business operation.

And when these FDR cannot be and has not been used by the company in practice for business operation during last 12 months, why bankers prefer treating these FDR as current asset?

As a matter of fact wrong concept of treating these FDR as current asset enhances the amount of ‘maximum permissible bank finance,and as a result of which  the businessmen always feel money crisis and ask for excess over the limit. In most of the cases it is found that the company has left with no working fund, Net working capital goes negative as soon as the FDRs held as margin against LG or LC are treated as non-current asset.

The prime reason for many cash credit accounts of large corporate borrowers turning bad and this is the key reason why such companies are going for restructuring.

If one peep into the balance sheet of these companies it will be found that such companies has exhausted entire working capital in these apparently short term FDRs.

Instead of demanding infusion of fresh capital from these borrowers, bankers under pressure to achieve credit target prefer ignore the basic principles of computation of permissible bank finance and take the risk of inviting fresh Non Performing Assets in their bank.

Are such FDR (held as margin against LG or LC) fit for computation of current asset for calculating current ratio?

If yes why?

Why FDR held as margin against LG or LC are treated differently, yes as current asset for current ratio and not as Current asset for computing Net working capital and MPBF?



WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT
(Part-1)
Introduction: Why a business need working capital
Any enterprise whether industrial, trading, or others generate three types of assets to run
its business as a going concern. 
1. Fixed assets to carry on the production/ business such as land, building, plant & machinery, furniture & fixtures etc. For going concern these are of permanent in nature and are not to be sold except in adverse conditions.
2. Current assets require for day to day  working of the business/unit which are floating in nature and keep changing during the course of business at a rapid pace in comparison to the other assets. These are short term in nature such as inventory, receivables (outstanding less than six months), loan & advances, cash
& bank balance etc.
3. Non- Current assets which are neither fixed assets nor current assets such as Intangible assets, long term investments,  FDR put in bank as margin money,security deposit (rent, government authorities etc), debtors outstanding more than
six months
Further fixed assets are to be financed by owned funds and long term liabilities raised by
a concern while current assets  are partly financed long term liabilities and partly by
current liabilities and other short term loans arranged by concern from the bank. 
Nature of industry decides the requirement of concern about the investment in current
assets. For example big industrial projects  may require substantial investment both in
fixed and current assets in comparison to trading unit or service sector. A trading unit
needs to invest a huge amount in stock-in-trade in comparison to fixed assets.  
Bank assessment of working capital
Reserve Bank of India had instructed to use strictly and adhere with the “second method
of lending” to banks while lending for working capital. 
As per this method the borrower should finance 25% of all current assets from owned
funds and long term liabilities and the balance be financed by bank. By applying this
method of lending one need to calculate the Maximum Permissible Bank Finance
(MPBF) for deriving the maximum limit which the bank could extend to the borrower. 



http://voiceofca.in/siteadmin/document/92_Working_Capital.pdf

http://220.227.161.86/eac/eacfinal/vol17/19.htm

2 comments:

  1. Excellent response received on Facebook
    By
    Vinay Agarwal
    Allahabad bank


    To avoid double financing from Banking channel on same current assets, the liquid margin is not considered as NWC, for MPBF. The supplier that has supplied goods on the basis of LC to buyer will get credit from Banking channel on these debtors. Let us assume a manufacturer avails 100 monetary unit limit of LC and 300 unit of CC from Bank B. The manufacturer is thus initially required to have margin of 100 units for LC and 100 units for CC.
    Suppose at a particular point in time the Buyer, constituent of Bank B, has current assets of 400 units, financed by to the extent of 100 units by NWC and 300 units by CC i.e Current Liability. Another Lot of 100 units which was in transit reaches the premises of Buyer B. This stock is not paid for and is on credit. As the CC limit is fully utilized the margin money for LC will be utilised to pay for these stock. Had this margin against LC been utilised for MPBF computation the margin on Current assets will become less than 25%.


    Current Ratio is concerned with the borrowers ability to meet its current liabilities and the margin held for non fund facilities meets this criterion, hence included in calculation of current ratio as current assets. However, if it is taken as NWC for the computation of MPBF the total borrowing would become more and the margin will become less than minimum stipulated, at the point where non funded liability is converted into funded liability.

    The above example was handy in understanding why cash Margin for Non Funded limit should be taken as current assets for computation of current ratio. Now another scenario to see what happens if the margin for non funded limit is considered as part of NWC for computation of MPBF. Suppose the buyer B has NWC of 200 monetary units. Bank B extends him a CC limit of 600 monetary units i.e. @ 25 % margin. Also it sanctions LC limit of 100 units against 100% cash margin to be kept as FDR ...but does not ask the borrower to bring in fresh capital. The borrower puts 100 units as FDR and assigns it to the Bank. Now if at a particular point in time the borrower has 800 units of current assets, out of these, 100 units are against creditors and the remaining 700 units have a margin of only 100 units. i.e only 14% approx against 25% stipulated.

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  2. Very simple.

    Contingent Liabilities are probable current liabilities in the near future. Therefore, money kept in FDR as margin on LC/BG cannot be called current assets, so long as LCs and BGs are shown under contingent liabilities. Hence such FDR amount is to be classified as non-current assets only. If and when the LCs devolve or BGs are invoked, they become current liabilities and such FDRs are shown as Current Assets. But, the banks use 'right of set off' and adjust the liability arising out of devolved LCs/invoked BGs immediately and the remaining portion is clubbed under current liabilities of the borrower.

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